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Post by melinky on Jan 13, 2005 22:42:36 GMT -5
This week in my Bible study, we are studying the book of Matthew. Since we also read most of it last week, reading from a different perspective, I thought I'd try a different translation this week, so I'm reading The Message translation.
As I was reading the Passion, there was one verse that I thought placed a different light on one of the parts of the story.
I've read this passage many times, but when I read it today, I began to wonder if the "sour" wine was poisoned or laced with a drug that would cause a person to lose consciousness and thus speed up the process. When wine sours, doesn't it turn to vinegar? What was it's purpose and why would it have been offered to a dying man?
Thanks in advance,
Melinda
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Post by rgrove on Jan 15, 2005 5:11:29 GMT -5
Sounds like you're on the right track to me. Here's what I have in my commentaries and study notes:
Our Zondervan NIV Study Bible has your idea in it regarding v34. It says:
So if the tradition is true, then this makes sense.
J. Vernon McGee says in his commentary:
Seeing as how Matthew's passion account is full of allusions to OT messianic prophecy I think this makes sense that it's a reference to Psalm 69:21. The ESV does have a text note pointing to this psalm at that verse.
John Broadus, the great 19th century Southern Baptist theologian, says in my favorite Matthew commentary on v34:
and v.48
I like how he looks at the issue in harmony with the other gospels for v. 48 rather than independant from them. It seems to add a good bit of insight here.
Louis A. Barbieri, Jr in the Walvoord and Zuck's "Bible Knowledge Commentary" put out by Dallas Theological Seminary professors on v.34 says:
and says for v. 48
Interesting take. My only concern here is that Jesus was speaking Aramaic on the cross "Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani." Why would they mistake this with Greek? Perhaps I'm missing something, though. Or perhaps they both sound similar in Aramaic and the reasoning is still good, but they were confused about the Aramaic and not the Greek.
The great Puritan divine Matthew Henry says of v34:
and of v48
John Wesley said in his notes on the NT of v34:
and of v. 48
And John Gill, highly regarded for his knowledge of Hebrew customs, tradition and teaching, notes on v. 34:
and v. 48
So, from where I'm sitting, your sounds pretty consistent with all of them (although they do have their disagreements). ;D
In Christ, Ron
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Post by Soulfyre on Jan 15, 2005 19:52:45 GMT -5
It would be hard for me to add to your excellent summary, rgrove! God bless and keep you and yours always in His redeeming grace, Matthew (soulfyre)
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Post by Kenny on Jan 15, 2005 22:54:10 GMT -5
It would be hard for me to add to your excellent summary, rgrove! God bless and keep you and yours always in His redeeming grace, Matthew (soulfyre) That's what I said!
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